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Substantial research compares (through statistics) homosexuality to schizophrenia. A large amount of information suggests that (S) arises genetically as a predisposition, not as a certainty. Furthermore, this predisposition arises even in individuals whose genetic inheritance for the past five generations has not included the (S) gene- it may have something to do with a mutation of a certain chromosome, I can't remember which number.
This predisposition is then enhanced by environment- figures rise greatly in monozygotic twin studies where the twins grew up in the same environment, when compared to studies where the MZ twins were seperated at birth.
The point is- if there is a genetic disposition to schizophrenia, why not to homosexuality, also?
BTW- homosexuality is NOT a disease, and has not been so in the DSM IV for quite some time.
Solid
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