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Originally Posted by Trapper John
Agoge 2 - the reason I asked that question is that there is some interesting work showing that the obesity epidemic in the U.S. may be the result of indiscriminate use of antibiotics and/or low level exposure to antibiotics in the food supply. This work is referenced in the opinion paper I published and is attached in the Drug Resistant Infections thread (post #1) in this forum.
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Not to hijack this thread, but how do you separate the effects of antibiotic exposure from those of hormone exposure from the food supply?
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"The dignity of man is not shattered in a single blow, but slowly softened, bent, and eventually neutered. Men are seldom forced to act, but are constantly restrained from acting. Such power does not destroy outright, but prevents genuine existence. It does not tyrannize immediately, but it dampens, weakens, and ultimately suffocates, until the entire population is reduced to nothing better than a flock of timid, uninspired animals, of which the government is shepherd." - Alexis de Tocqueville
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