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Originally Posted by Ret10Echo
The way I understand the process is that people in disagreement with the established laws here in the U.S. have a means by which to make change through the political process (this is based in doctrine as opposed to statement of fact. Your State may vary ).
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But no one is in disagreement with established law. We're talking about Muslims asking for their rights under established law.
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If Sharia is not to supecede US law, then I suppose it would be reduced to somthing more of a moral code for those who "sign up" for it much like the Amish, Menonites, LDS or other groups (religious or non) that have established rules for conduct and lifestyle. Provided those rules/beliefs do not lead to conduct that violates established laws.
That being said, they (muslims) have that freedom now.....so why the debate on an official recognition?
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The issue is not whether they have the right to live their lives to a certain moral code, which of course they do. The issue is whether they have the right under the law to use that code to settle petty civil disputes as the other groups do with their codes. The issue is equal treatment under the law.