Alright.. I let the thread die, so I will try and revive it with my internet ACLS.
Another observation I made from y’alls questioning.
Why was it important for Doc T to ask about nausea/vomiting and when it occurred when compared to pain?
Because when vomiting occurs due to appendicitis, it nearly always
follows the onset of pain. Vomiting that precedes pain is more suggestive of intestinal obstruction, and therefore your diagnosis of appendicitis should be reconsidered and scrutinized.
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just another point that could be lost if we don't go over exactly how GOOD you guy's history taking questions were.
Anyone else want to report why they were asking a certain question? Or what certain info I reported back ruled out or made likely when it was given?
Or hell, if this is to boring for you "cutters", what would you do now that you have diagnosed it as appendicits?